
"Teaching God's Word to God's World"
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Dear Brother Faull,
First, we need to look at some facts. These texts are:
1. Not
the same occasion.
A. Matthew
was after the triumphal Entry.
B. Luke
was before it.
2. Not
answering the same questions.
A. Matthew
was answering three questions:
1) When
shall these things be?
2) What
is the sign of Your coming?
3) When
will be the end of the age?
B. Luke was
not answering any of those three questions, but the question as to when is the
Kingdom coming?
3. Not
the same querist.
A. In
Matthew it was with His disciples.
B. In
Luke it was with his enemies, the
4. Not
the same purpose.
A. In
Matthew He is answering the disciples’
B. In Luke
He is warning the disciples. They
had just seen Him rebuke the Pharisees who doubted the Kingdom’s coming, so He
cautions them to not be deceived.
5. Not the same number of events.
A. You
see 5 events in Luke 17 that are not recorded
in the same order in Matthew 24. There are not five events, but five analogies or illustrations. The
same illustrations are used in many contexts. I use an illustration that goes
like this:
Now I have used that illustration to demonstrate
several things:
1.) Do
not stay in sin too long or you will come to the place that you cannot repent.
2.) Do
not get involved in sexual impropriety because there is a point to which you
cannot stop.
3.) Do
not refuse God’s grace too long, or it will be too late.
What kind of an interpreter would insist that I spoke
of the same event in each illustration? That would be ludicrous.
1. They
will wish for His day to return for another opportunity.
2. They
will accept false Christs, having not
3. The
Kingdom will not be secret after He once
4. People
will miss the Kingdom of God because they are like those of Noah’s day or the Sodomites.
Jesus warns, “Do not be like Lot’s wife.”
5. Destruction
will come on those not ready for
Jesus merely did what every preacher
does. He used the same analogies in answer to different questions. Luke 17
deals only with the destruction of those who reject His Kingdom before the
destruction of Jerusalem. He makes no reference to Christ’s Second Coming at
all.
How am I sure that I am right about
this? Because Luke 21 deals with the same questions, and on the same
occasion with the same purpose. It is in the same order as Matthew 24.
Did Luke write the same thing twice (chapter 17 and 21)? Not hardly! He
did, however, show that Jesus did use the same analogies just as I did in the
above scenarios. Your question is a good one, but remember to study the
context. “A text out of context becomes a pretext.”
You have violated the old Hermeneutical
principles.
Determine:
1. Who
is speaking?
2. To
whom is he speaking?
3. For
what purpose is he speaking?
4. And to
what dispensation does he refer [the time element]?
I hope this helps.